Hello SeqAns community,
This may be a naive question, but after reading the paper from Wagner, 2012 and watched the video from Lior, I still don't see the benefit of switching from R/FPKM to TPM.
From my understanding:
- TPM and RPKM are both relative abundance units
- Both are acceptable units when comparing genes from the same sample, but being relative quantity, it is not appropriate to compare TPM/RPKM values from different samples directly. Some (further) normalization is needed.
- In Wagner's paper it was mentioned that avg TPM is consistent (like relative molar concentration) while avg RPKM is not. What is the significant of this?
Thank you!
This may be a naive question, but after reading the paper from Wagner, 2012 and watched the video from Lior, I still don't see the benefit of switching from R/FPKM to TPM.
From my understanding:
- TPM and RPKM are both relative abundance units
- Both are acceptable units when comparing genes from the same sample, but being relative quantity, it is not appropriate to compare TPM/RPKM values from different samples directly. Some (further) normalization is needed.
- In Wagner's paper it was mentioned that avg TPM is consistent (like relative molar concentration) while avg RPKM is not. What is the significant of this?
Thank you!
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