Hi,
I am a statistician rather than geneticist/biologist so would really be grateful if someone can explain the cause/origin of GC-content bias with sequencing coverage. Many studies have observed a unimodal relationship where coverage decreases at high AT or high GC.
From what I understand, since AT bonds are weaker than GC bonds, in the PCR step, fragments with extreme GC (strong bonds) may not denature completely to form the single stranded DNA, hence we see a trend of decreasing coverage as GC increases.
But what about the decreasing coverage in regions of extreme low AT?
Can anyone explain?
I am a statistician rather than geneticist/biologist so would really be grateful if someone can explain the cause/origin of GC-content bias with sequencing coverage. Many studies have observed a unimodal relationship where coverage decreases at high AT or high GC.
From what I understand, since AT bonds are weaker than GC bonds, in the PCR step, fragments with extreme GC (strong bonds) may not denature completely to form the single stranded DNA, hence we see a trend of decreasing coverage as GC increases.
But what about the decreasing coverage in regions of extreme low AT?
Can anyone explain?
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