Dear All,
I'm relatively new to WGS analysis so please excuse any naivety on my part.
Before getting the WGS sequences I have confirmed the presence or absence of certain oligonucleotides in various bacterial DNA samples. So I know I should see these sequences in the final consensus sequence.
Is it true to think that if I can produce a more reliable consensus sequence then the SNP calls are also likely to be more reliable. I appreciate that there are many SNP quality filters etc that will also be applied that can lead to difference between a consensus and a SNP call, but I just wanted to get an idea of the overall correlation between the consensus and SNPs.
If there is a high correlation between the two then surely if I make sure that my consensus sequences are as reliable as possible, when I come to calling the SNPs from the same mapped reads they will be more reliable???
Apologies if I'm totally wrong about this.
Best wishes lg36
I'm relatively new to WGS analysis so please excuse any naivety on my part.
Before getting the WGS sequences I have confirmed the presence or absence of certain oligonucleotides in various bacterial DNA samples. So I know I should see these sequences in the final consensus sequence.
Is it true to think that if I can produce a more reliable consensus sequence then the SNP calls are also likely to be more reliable. I appreciate that there are many SNP quality filters etc that will also be applied that can lead to difference between a consensus and a SNP call, but I just wanted to get an idea of the overall correlation between the consensus and SNPs.
If there is a high correlation between the two then surely if I make sure that my consensus sequences are as reliable as possible, when I come to calling the SNPs from the same mapped reads they will be more reliable???
Apologies if I'm totally wrong about this.
Best wishes lg36
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